CCNA 1 Final Exam v5.0 2013

CCNA 1 R&S: Introduction to Networks Final Exam v5.0 2013

CCNA 1 R&S: Introduction to Networks Final Exam v5.0 2013 routing and Switching Quiz test

1

Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:
R1# copy running-config tftp

Address or name of remote host [ ]?
When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?
192.168.9.254
192.168.10.1
192.168.10.2
192.168.11.254
192.168.11.252

2 Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.
UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.

3 What is the purpose of ICMP messages?
to inform routers about network topology changes
to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution
to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions

4 A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?
connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network
the TCP/IP stack on a network host
connectivity between two PCs on the same network

5 What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?
It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
It initiates an ARP request.
It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.
It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

6 What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?
It places information in the frame that allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.
It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.

7
On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?
VLAN 1
console 0
vty 0
FastEthernet0/1

8
A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)
the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone
the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
the type of traffic that is crossing the network
the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing

9
When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?
service password-encryption
login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60
banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
exec-timeout 30

10
Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)
ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.
FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS​.
ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.
NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores other system files.

11
Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)
custom adapter
wireless bridge
media
wireless NIC
crossover cable
wireless client software

12 Launch PT – Hide and Save PT

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then fill in the blank.
The Server0 message is winner

13
A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
applying security settings to control the flow of data
notifying other devices when errors occur
regenerating data signals
acting as a client or a server
serving as the source or destination of the messages
providing a channel over which messages travel

14

15

16
Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?
IP address
logical address
MAC address
default gateway address

17
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.
The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.

18
A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPNACK
DHCPACK

19

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?​
Switch#
My(config)#​
My Switch(config)#​
Switch(config)#​
MySwitch(config)#​

20
After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?
The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.
The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.

21

Refer to the exhibit.A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?
2921
250
2
306
21

22
Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
ARP
DNS
SMB
DHCP
HTTP
NAT

23 What is the purpose of the routing process?
to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
to convert a URL name into an IP address
to provide secure Internet file transfer
to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

24 Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
audio conference, financial transactions, web page
financial transactions, audio conference, web page
audio conference, web page, financial transactions
financial transactions, web page, audio conference

25
A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?
cell modem
dial-up
cable modem
satellite
DSL

26
Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?
a Telnet connection
an SSH connection
a console connection
an AUX connection

27 What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?
to provide challenge and response questions
to require users to prove who they are
to determine which resources a user can access
to keep track of the actions of a user

28

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?
lineconin
linevtyin
letmein
secretin

29
Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?
IEEE standards
Request for Comments
IRTF research papers
protocol models

30 A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network 192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?
This entry refers to the PC itself.
This entry maps to the default gateway.
This is a static map entry.
This is a dynamic map entry.

31 Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26
192.168.1.32/28
192.168.1.32/27
192.168.1.64/29

32
A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
ipconfig /all
ipconfig /displaydns
arp -a
nslookup

33 Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?
WPA
PSK
WEP
EAP

34
A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?
to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
to determine the physical address of the sending device
to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device
to check the frame for possible transmission errors
to verify the network layer protocol information

35

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?
Site 1
Site 3
Site 4
Site 2

36
What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?
to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
to permit only unicast packets on the router
to enable the router as an IPv6 router
to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

37
Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)
10.1.1.1
172.16.4.4
224.6.6.6
192.168.5.5
172.32.5.2
192.167.10.10

38

Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.
It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.

39 During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?
flash
RAM
NVRAM
disk drive

40
What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?
It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.
It accepts frames from the physical media.
It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.

41
Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
avoiding sharp bends during installation
requiring proper grounding connections
designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together

42
What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)
placement and removal of frames from the media
detection of errors through CRC calculations
conversion of bits into data signals
delimiting groups of bits into frames
data link layer addressing
error correction through a collision detection method
session control using port numbers

43
What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
token passing
CSMA/CD
CSMA/CA
priority ordering

44
What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?
A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
The transmission continues without the missing portion.
The entire transmission is re-sent.

45
What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?
the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected
the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation

46
Which function is provided by TCP?
detection of missing packets
communication session control
path determination for data packets
data encapsulation

47
How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?
A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.
A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.

48
Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/68
/62
/66
/64
/70

49
What is the purpose of having a converged network?
to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure
to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices

50

Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?
just the PC0 MAC address
PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
just the PC2 MAC address​
just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
just the PC1 MAC address

51
Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its transmission?
Packet Length
Destination Address
Flag
Time-to-Live

52
What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)
MAC filtering enabled
default administrator password
WEP encryption enabled
PSK authentication required
broadcast SSID

53
Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?
the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network
the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network

54

Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?
An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.
The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.

55

56
Fill in the blank.
During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a “multicast” message.

57
An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?
to interrupt the ping process
to restart the ping process
to allow the user to complete the command
to exit to a different configuration mode

58

Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?
area A
area D
area C
area B

59

60

61
In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?
setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
flash, ROM, setup mode

62

Launch PT – Hide and Save PT
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
2001:db8:abc:1::1
2001:db8:abc:5::1
2001:db8:abc:5::2
2001:db8:abc:10::15

The result of the tracert command is as follows:
1 11 ms 0 ms 0 ms 2001:db8:abc:1::1
2 4 ms 0 ms 1 ms 2001:db8:abc:5::1
3 11 ms 14 ms 2 ms 2001:db8:abc:10::15
It crosses two routers, so the second line is the IP address for the RT2 serial interface0/0/0.

CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam v5.0

CCNA 1 Practice Final Exam v5.0 Questions and Answers 2013

1. A network administrator has been issued a network address of 192.31.7.64/26. How many subnets of equal size could be created from the assigned /26 network by using a /28 prefix?

4

Remember:
A /26 prefix requires the first 2 bits of the last octet for the network portion. The last octet of the assigned network address (64) is 0100 0000 with the first 2 bits reserved for the network portion. Our beginning values go from 192.31.7.64 through to 192.31.7.127. If we now further subdivide that range using a /28 prefix, we need to borrow 2 more bits. Remember that to remain within the .64 to .127 range, the first two bits MUST remain as 01. Because we have only 2 more bits to work with, there are only 4 different combinations.
192.31.7.64 – 0100 0000
192.31.7.80 – 0101 0000
192.31.7.96 – 0110 00000
192.31.7.112 – 0111 00000
Notice that the subnets increment by 16.

2.What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
It will discard the frame.

3.A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?
The configuration file is missing from NVRAM.

4.A user is attempting to do an http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
DNS server
default gateway

5.For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)
1. It can rapidly adapt to the loss of data transmission facilities.
2. It efficiently utilizes the network infrastructure to transfer data.
3. Data packets can travel multiple paths through the network simultaneously.

6.Refer to the graphic. What is the effect of setting the security mode to WEP on the Linksys integrated router?
It encrypts data between the wireless client and the access point.

7.
R1#config t
R1(config)# enable password Cisco123
R1(config)# enable secret Cisco123
R1(config)# service password-encryption
R1(config)# line con 0
R1(config-line)# password Cisco789
R1(config-line)# end
R1# copy running-config startup-config
R1# reload

Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the result of entering this configuration the next time a network administrator connects a console cable to the router and no additional commands have been entered?

The administrator will be presented with the R1> prompt.

Remember: Until both the password password and the login commands are entered in console line configuration mode, no password is required to gain access to enable mode.

8.Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?
It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.

9.The administrator of a branch office receives an IPv6 prefix of 2001:db8:3000::/52 from the corporate network manager. How many subnets can the administrator create
4096

10.Which two functions are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
packet switching
path selection

11.Which router configuration mode would an administrator use to configure the router for SSH or Telnet login access?
line

12.Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is attempting to connect to a new router to perform the initial configuration. The engineer connects a rollover cable from the serial port of a PC to the Aux port on the router, then configures HyperTerminal as shown. The engineer cannot get a login prompt in HyperTerminal. What would fix the problem?
Move the cable to the router console port.

13.A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless connection be recommended?
The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.

14.Which devices should be secured to mitigate against MAC address spoofing attacks?
Layer 2 devices

15.Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

16.What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?
source and destination IP address

17.A network team is comparing physical WAN topologies for connecting remote sites to a headquarters building. Which topology provides high availability and connects some, but not all, remote sites?
partial mesh

18.The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address

19.Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified:
A logical topology diagram typically depicts the IP addressing scheme and groupings of devices and ports. A physical topology diagram shows how those devices are connected to each other and the network, focusing on the physical locations of intermediary devices, configured ports, and cabling.

20.What makes fiber preferable to copper cabling for interconnecting buildings? (Choose three.)
greater distances per cable run
limited susceptibility to EMI/RFI
greater bandwidth potential

21.What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)
1. grows in size without impacting existing users
2. suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion

22.Switch# ping 10.1.1.1
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending , 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds: UUUU
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is testing connectivity to a remote device with the IP address 10.1.1.1. What does the output of this command indicate

A router along the path did not have a route to the destination.
Remember:
In the output of the ping command, an exclamation mark (!) indicates a response was successfully received, a period (.) indicates that the connection timed out while waiting for a reply, and the letter “U” indicates that a router along the path did not have a route to the destination and sent an ICMP destination unreachable message back to the source.

23.Fill in the blank using a number.
The minimum Ethernet frame size is______ bytes. Anything smaller than that should be considered a “runt frame.”
64

Remember:
Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame as 64 bytes and the maximum as 1518 bytes.

24.Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Use lower case.
Which interface configuration mode command puts a Layer 3 switch interface into Layer 3 mode?
no switchport

25.To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?
The configuration should have been copied to the running configuration instead.

26.Which is a function of the show ip route command when used as a tool for troubleshooting network connectivity?
shows the IP address of the next hop router for each route

27.A small satellite office has been given the overall network number of 192.168.99.0/24 and the network technician can subdivide the network addresses as needed. The office needs network access for both wired and wireless devices. However, because of the security consideration, these two networks should be separate. The wired network will have 20 devices. The wireless network has a potential connection of 45 devices. Which addressing scheme would be most efficient for these two networks?
192.168.99.0/26
192.168.99.64/27

Remember:
Always calculate the biggest number of host devices first. To accommodate 45 devices, 6 host bits must be left because 26 = 64 (but two addresses cannot be used). The network number for the 45-device network is 192.168.99.0/26. The broadcast address is 192.168.99.63. Keep in mind that addresses 192.168.99.1 through 192.168.99.62 are for devices. The next network number is 192.168.99.64 for the 20-device wired network. To accommodate 20 devices, 5 bits must be left for host bits because 25 = 32 (but two addresses cannot be used. The mask would be /27 or 255.255.255.224.

28.What is one purpose of the TCP three-way handshake?
synchronizing sequence numbers between source and destination in preparation for data transfer

29.A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
physical layer

30.A nibble consists of ______ bits.
4

31.What are two actions performed by a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
1. using the source MAC addresses of frames to build and maintain a MAC address table
2. utilizing the MAC address table to forward frames via the destination MAC address

32.Why are the paired wires twisted in a CAT5 cable?
to provide eletromagnetic noise cancellation

33.Match the subnetwork to host address that would be included within the subnetwork
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.127

34.Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?
packet

35.Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
1. The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
2. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

Remember:The IPv6 packet header fields are as follows: Version, Traffic Class, Flow Label, Payload Length, Next Header, Hop Limit, Source Address, and Destination Address. The IPv4 packet header fields include the following: Version, Differentiated Services, Time-to-Live, Protocol, Source IP Address, and Destination IP Address. Both versions have a 4-bit Version field. Both versions have a Source (IP) Address field. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits; IPv6 addresses are 128 bits. The Time-to-Live or TTL field in IPv4 is now called Hop Limit in IPv6, but this field serves the same purpose in both versions. The value in this 8-bit field decrements each time a packet passes through any router. When this value is 0, the packet is discarded and is not forwarded to any other router.

36.Match each description with the appropriate type of threat
Electrical threats: brownouts
Hardware threat: physical damage to routers
Maintenance threat: poor cabling of the network infrastructure

37.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the IP address ___________ is the last host address for the network 172.25.0.64/26
10101100.00011001.00000000.01000000

38.Which service will translate private internal IP addresses into Internet routable public IP addresses?
NAT

39.A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.

40.Which two types of applications rely on their traffic having priority over other traffic types through the network? (Choose two.)
video
voice

41.What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
global routing prefix
subnet ID
interface ID

42.What three primary functions does data link layer encapsulation provide? (Choose three.)
addressing
error detection
frame delimiting

43.A PC that is communicating with a web server is utilizing a window size of 6,000 bytes when sending data and a packet size of 1,500 bytes. What byte of information will the web server acknowledge after it has received four packets of data from the PC?
6001

44.Refer to the exhibit. Which layer of the OSI model would format data in this way?
data link

45.A user calls the help desk to report that a Windows XP workstation is unable to connect to the network after startup and that a popup window says “This connection has limited or no connectivity.” The technician asks the user to issue the ipconfig /all command. The user reports the IP address is 169.254.69.196 with subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 and nothing is displayed for the DNS server IP address. What is the cause of the problem?
The workstation is unable to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

46.Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings could be changed to improve security on the wireless network? (Choose two.)
SSID
SSID broadcast

47.Which IPv6 address notation is valid?
2001:DB8:0:1111::200

48.What are two ways that TCP uses the sequence numbers in a segment? (Choose two.)
– to identify missing segments at the destination
– to reassemble the segments at the remote location

49.What three statements describe features or functions of media access control? (Choose three.)
It is responsible for detecting transmission errors in transmitted data.
Data link layer protocols define the rules for access to different media.
Ethernet utilizes CSMA/CD.

50.Authorized access only!
Router>

Refer to the exhibit. From global configuration mode, an administrator is attempting to create a message-of-the-day banner by using the command banner motd V Authorized access only! Violators will be prosecuted! V When users log in using Telnet, the banner does not appear correctly. What is the problem?
The delimiting character appears in the banner message.

51.Why are port numbers included in the TCP header of a segment?
to enable a receiving host to forward the data to the appropriate application

52.What is an ISP?
It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

53.Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)
A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.

Remember:In order to send data to ServerB, HostA will generate a packet that contains the IP address of the destination device on the remote network and a frame that contains the MAC address of the default gateway device on the local network.

54.Refer to the exhibit. Using VLSM, what is the largest and smallest subnet mask required on this network in order to minimize address waste?
255.255.254.0 and 255.255.255.252

55.Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which information is obtained from this command output?
10.20.20.3, non-authoritative answer

56.What is the function of CSMA/CA in a WLAN?
It provides the mechanism for media access.

57.A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?
leased line

CCNA 1 Chapter 11 v5.0 answers

Which network design consideration would be more important to a large corporation than to a small business?

redundancy
___________________________________________________________________

What do WLANs that conform to IEEE 802.11 standards allow wireless users to do?
connect wireless hosts to hosts or services on a wired Ethernet network
___________________________________________________________________

The _____ command that is issued on a router is used to verify the value of the software configuration register
show version

Remember:

The show version command that is issued on a router displays the value of the configuration register, the Cisco IOS version being used, and the amount of flash memory on the device, among other information.​

___________________________________________________________________

Which two statements characterize wireless network security? (Choose two.)
Using the default IP address on an access point makes hacking easier.
With SSID broadcast disabled, an attacker must know the SSID to connect.

___________________________________________________________________

Fill in the blank.
VoIP__________ defines the protocols and technologies that implement the transmission of voice data over an IP network.

___________________________________________________________________

Which two statements about a service set identifier (SSID) are true? (Choose two.)
tells a wireless device to which WLAN it belongs
all wireless devices on the same WLAN must have the same SSID

___________________________________________________________________

If a configuration file is saved to a USB flash drive attached to a router, what must be done by the network administrator before the file can be used on the router?
Edit the configuration file with a text editor.

___________________________________________________________________

Which command will backup the configuration that is stored in NVRAM to a TFTP server?
copy startup-config tftp

Remember:

The startup configuration file is stored in NVRAM, and the running configuration is stored in RAM. The copy command is followed by the source, then the destination.

___________________________________________________________________

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to troubleshoot connectivity between PC1 and PC2 and uses the tracert command from PC1 to do it. Based on the displayed output, where should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
R1

___________________________________________________________________

When should an administrator establish a network baseline
at regular intervals over a period of time

___________________________________________________________________

Refer to the exhibit. Baseline documentation for a small company had ping round trip time statistics of 36/97/132 between hosts H1 and H3. Today the network administrator checked connectivity by pinging between hosts H1 and H3 that resulted in a round trip time of 1458/2390/6066. What does this indicate to the network administrator?
Something is causing a time delay between the networks

___________________________________________________________________

A ping fails when performed from router R1 to directly connected router R2. The network administrator then proceeds to issue the show cdp neighbors command. Why would the network administrator issue this command if the ping failed between the two routers?
The network administrator wants to verify Layer 2 connectivity.

Remember:

The show cdp neighbors command can be used to prove that Layer 1 and Layer 2 connectivity exists between two Cisco devices. For example, if two devices have duplicate IP addresses, a ping between the devices will fail, but the output of show cdp neighbors will be successful. The show cdp neighbors detail could be used to verify the IP address of the directly connected device in case the same IP address is assigned to the two routers.

___________________________________________________________________

Which statement is true about CDP on a Cisco device?
CDP can be disabled globally or on a specific interface​.

___________________________________________________________________

What is the purpose of issuing the commands cd nvram: then dir at the privilege exec mode of a router?
to list the content of the NVRAM

___________________________________________________________________

A network administrator has determined that various computers on the network are infected with a worm. Which sequence of steps should be followed to mitigate the worm attack?
containment, inoculation, quarantine, and treatment

___________________________________________________________________

A network administrator checks the security log and notices there was unauthorized access to an internal file server over the weekend. Upon further investigation of the file system log, the administrator notices several important documents were copied to a host located outside of the company. What kind of threat is represented in this scenario?
information theft

___________________________________________________________________

Which type of network attack involves the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services?
denial of service attacks

___________________________________________________________________

Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?
RTP
___________________________________________________________________

Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?
WPA

___________________________________________________________________

How should traffic flow be captured in order to best understand traffic patterns in a network?
during peak utilization times

___________________________________________________________________

What is a security feature of using NAT on a network?
allows internal IP addresses to be concealed from external users

___________________________________________________________________

Which two actions can be taken to prevent a successful attack on an email server account? (Choose two.)
Limit the number of unsuccessful attempts to log in to the server.
Never send the password through the network in a clear text.

___________________________________________________________________

Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.

The show_______ command provides information about the amount of available and free flash memory and its permissions for reading or writing data.
file systems

Remember:

The show file systems command lists all of the available file systems on a Cisco router. It provides useful information such as the amount of available and free memory of flash and nvram, and its access permissions that include read only (ro), write only (wo), and read and write (rw).​

___________________________________________________________________

Open the PT Activity.

How long will a user be blocked if the user exceeds the maximum allowed number of unsuccessful login attempts?
3 minutes

Remember:

The timeout duration for login attempts is set by the login block-for 180 attempts 4 within 60 command. This command sets the login block at 180 seconds (3 minutes) after 4 incorrect attempts within a 60 second time period. This command can be viewed in the running configuration file.

___________________________________________________________________

This item is the drag and drop matching steps.

Place the options in the following order:
– not scored –
step 5
step 2
step 4
step 1
step 3

CCNA 1 Chapter 10 v5.0 answers

1. Select three protocols that operate at the Application Layer of the OSI model. (Choose three.)

POP3
DHCP
FTP
ARP
TCP
DSL

2.

3. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The services required include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols represent these three key applications? (Choose three.)
FTP
HTTP
SMTP
DNS
SNMP
DHCP

4.

Match the DNS record type to the corresponding description
A – end device address
NS – authoritative name server
CNAME – canonical name
MX – mail exchange record

5. Which phrase describes an FTP daemon?
a program that is running on an FTP server
a diagnostic FTP program
a program that is running on an FTP client
an application that is used to request data from an FTP server

6.Which two actions are taken by SMTP if the destination email server is busy when email messages are sent? (Choose two.)
SMTP periodically checks the queue for messages and attempts to send them again
SMTP tries to send the messages at a later time
SMTP sends an error message back to the sender and closes the connection.
SMTP will discard the message if it is still not delivered after a predetermined expiration time.
SMTP sends the messages to another mail server for delivery.

7.When would it be more efficient to use SMB to transfer files instead of FTP?
when downloading large numbers of files from the same server
when downloading large files with a variety of formats from different servers
when a peer-to-peer application is required
when the host devices on the network use the Windows operating system
when uploading the same file to multiple remote servers

8. What is an example of network communication that uses the client-server model?
A workstation initiates a DNS request when the user types http://www.cisco.com in the address bar of a web browser.
A user uses eMule to download a file that is shared by a friend after the file location is determined.
A workstation initiates an ARP to find the MAC address of a receiving host.
A user prints a document by using a printer that is attached to a workstation of a coworker.

9. What is true about the Server Message Block protocol?
Clients establish a long term connection to servers.
Different SMB message types have a different format.
SMB messages cannot authenticate a session.
SMB uses the FTP protocol for communication.

10.

Refer to the exhibit. What command was used to resolve a given host name by querying the name servers?
nslookup

A user can manually query the name servers to resolve
a given host name using the nslookup command.​
Nslookup is both a command and a utility.​

11. Which DNS server in the DNS hierarchy would be considered authoritative for the domain name records of a company named netacad?
netacad.com
mx.netacad.com
http://www.netacad.com
.com

12. A user accessed the game site http://www.nogamename.com last week. The night before the user accesses the game site again, the site administrator changes the site IP address. What will be the consequence of that action for the user?
The user will access the site without problems.
The user will not be able to access the site.
The user will have to modify the DNS server address on the local PC in order to access the site.
The user will have to issue a ping to this new IP address to be sure that the domain name remained the same.

13.

Match the purpose with its DHCP message type

DHCPREQUEST – a message that is used to identify the explicit server and lease offer to accept
DHCPDISCOVER – a message that is used to locate any available DHCP server on the network
DHCPOFFER – a message that is used to suggest a lease to a client
DHCPACK – a message that is used to acknowledge that the lease is successful

14. What are two characteristics of peer-to-peer networks? (Choose two.)
resource sharing without a dedicated server
decentralized resources
scalable
one way data flow
centralized user accounts

15. Which three layers of the OSI model provide similar network services to those provided by the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
session layer
application layer
presentation layer
physical layer
transport layer
data link layer

16. What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until the client manually deletes them.
When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.
IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email.
POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage.

17. Which application layer protocol uses message types such as GET, PUT, and POST?
HTTP
DNS
DHCP
SMTP
POP3

18. A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPACK
DHCPOFFER
DHCPNAK

19.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PC or PCs are sending FTP packets to the server?
PC_2
PC_3
PC_1
PC_1 and PC_3

20. Which three statements describe a DHCP Discover message? (Choose three.)
The destination IP address is 255.255.255.255.
The message comes from a client seeking an IP address.
All hosts receive the message, but only a DHCP server replies.
The source MAC address is 48 ones (FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF).
The message comes from a server offering an IP address.
Only the DHCP server receives the message.

21. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)
Compression
Encryption
addressing
session control
authentication

22. What is the acronym for the protocol that is used when securely communicating with a web server?
HTTPS

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
is the protocol that is used for accessing or
posting web server information using a secure communication channel.

CCNA 1 Chapter 9 v5.0 answers

1.

Refer to the exhibit. A computer that is configured with the IPv6 address as shown in the exhibit is unable to access the internet. What is the problem?
The gateway address is in the wrong subnet.
The DNS address is wrong.
There should not be an alternative DNS address.
The settings were not validated.

2.When subnetting a /64 IPv6 network prefix, which is the preferred new prefix?
/72
/66
/70
/74

3.Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)
/64
/68
/62
/66
/70

4.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
What issue is causing Host A to be unable to communicate with Host B
Host A and host B are on overlapping subnets
The subnet mask of host A is incorrect.
Host A has an incorrect default gateway.
The IP address of host B is not in the same subnet as the default gateway is on.

5.Consider the following range of addresses:
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::
2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::
The prefix for the range of addresses is __________________
/60
Remember:
All the addresses have the part 2001:0DB8:BC15:00A in common. Each number or letter in the address represents 4 bits, so the prefix is /60

6.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the subnet mask_________ will accommodate 500 hosts per subnet.
255.255.254.0

Remember:
If the network has to accommodate 500 hosts per subnet, then we need 9 host bits
(2^9 – 2 = 510 hosts). The Class B subnet mask has 16 bits available and if we use 9 bits for hosts, we will have 7 network bits remaining.The subnet mask with 9 host bits is 11111111.11111111.11111110.00000000, which corresponds to 255.255.254.0.

7.

Refer to the exhibit.
Given the network address of 192.168.5.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224, how many addresses are wasted in total by subnetting each network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224?
72
56
60
64
68

Remember:
The network IP address 192.168.5.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 provides 30 usable IP addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are no addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 of the 30 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 28 addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 28 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 16 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 0+28+28+16=72 addresses

8.In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?
/25
/23
/24
/26

Remember:
Prefix /25 means that 7 bits are reserved for the host address range, which is 2^7-2=126. This is the best option to accommodate 100 hosts with the least waste of IP addresses. /23 gives 2^9-2=510 host addresses, a waste of 410 addresses. /24 gives 2^8-2=254 hosts, wasting 154 host addresses. /26 gives 2^6-2=62 host addresses, not enough to accommodate 100 hosts.

9.Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)
It eliminates most address configuration errors
It reduces the burden on network support staff
It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.

10.Fill in the blank.
In dotted decimal notation, the IP address_______ is the last host address for the network 172.25.0.64/26.
172.25.0.126

Remember:
The binary representation of the network address 172.25.0.64 is 10101100.00011001.00000000.01000000, where the last six zeros represent the host part of the address. The last address on that subnet would have the host part equal to 111111, and the last host address would end in 111110. This results in a binary representation of the last host of the IP address as 10101100.00011001.00000000.01111110, which translates in decimal to 172.25.0.126.

11.When developing an IP addressing scheme for an enterprise network, which devices are recommended to be grouped into their own subnet or logical addressing group?
hosts accessible from the internet
end-user clients
workstation clients
mobile and laptop hosts
Remember:
Hosts that are accessible from the Internet require public IP addresses. End-user clients, mobile and laptop hosts, and workstation clients are internal network devices that would be assigned private IP addresses.

12.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there?
1
2
3
4

13.How many usable host addresses are there in the subnet 192.168.1.32/27?
32
30
64
16
62

14.A nibble consists of _______ bits
four

15.How many host addresses are available on the network 172.16.128.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?
510
512
1022
1024
2046
2048

Remember:
A mask of 255.255.252.0 is equal to a prefix of /22. A /22 prefix provides 22 bits for the network portion and leaves 10 bits for the host portion. The 10 bits in the host portion will provide 1022 usable IP addresses (210 – 2 = 1022).

16.A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?
random static addresses to improve security
addresses from different subnets for redundancy
predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

17.How many bits must be borrowed from the host portion of an address to accommodate a router with five connected networks?
two
three
four
five

18.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address.
Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?
IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33
IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46
IP address: 192.168.10.254 subnet mask: 255.255.255.0, default gateway: 192.168.10.1

Remember:
Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

19.What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?
2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
2001:DB8:BC15::0
2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

Remember:
The network and subnet fields cover 64 bits. This means that the first 4 groups of hexadecimal digits represent the network and subnet fields. The first address within that range is 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0

20.

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.128
255.255.255.192
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.240

Remember:
The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

21.A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.64/27
192.168.1.96/28
192.168.1.16/28
192.168.1.128/27
192.168.1.192/28

Remember:
Subnet 192.168.1.64 /27 has 5 bits that are allocated for host addresses and therefore will be able to support 32 addresses, but only 30 valid host IP addresses. Subnet 192.168.1.96/28 has 4 bits for host addresses and will be able to support 16 addresses, but only 14 valid host IP addresses

22.A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a mask of 255.255.255.248. How many host addresses will this subnet provide?​
4
6
8
10
12

Remember:
The mask 255.255.255.248 is equivalent to the /29 prefix. This leaves 3 bits for hosts, providing a total of 6 usable IP addresses (23 = 8 – 2 = 6).

23.

Refer to the exhibit. Match the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements.
Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses.
Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses.
Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses.
Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.

24.Match the subnetwork to a host address that would be included within the subnetwork
Subnet 192.168.1.32/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.33 – 192.168.1.62 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.63
Subnet 192.168.1.64/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.65 – 192.168.1.94 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.95
Subnet 192.168.1.96/27 will have a valid host range from 192.168.1.97 – 192.168.1.126 with the broadcast address as 192.168.1.127

CCNA 1 Chapter 8 v5.0 answers

1.What is indicated by a successful ping to the ::1 IPv6 address?

IP is properly installed on the host.
The link-local address is correctly configured.
The default gateway address is correctly configured.
The host is cabled properly.
All hosts on the local link are available.

2.Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose two.)​
route redirection
protocol unreachable
router solicitation
neighbor solicitation
router advertisement

3.What are three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
1. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site
2. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network
3. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has been provided by an ISP
an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host
a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided by a local administrator

4.When an IPv6 enabled host needs to discover the MAC address of an intended IPv6 destination, which destination address is used by the source host in the NS message?
solicited-node multicast address
global unicast address of the receiver
all-node multicast address
link-local address of the receiver

5.Which two statements are correct about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits in length.
IPv6 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
IPv6 addresses are 32 bits in length.
IPv4 addresses are 128 bits in length.
IPv4 addresses are represented by hexadecimal numbers.
IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.

6.A DHCP server is used to assign IP addresses dynamically to the hosts on a network. The address pool is configured with 192.168.10.0/24. There are 3 printers on this network that need to use reserved static IP addresses from the pool. How many IP addresses in the pool are left to be assigned to other hosts?
251
253
252
254

7.Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)
1. whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network
2. the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the source
the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond
the IP address of the router nearest the destination device
the number of routers between the source and destination device

8.The decimal equivalent of the binary number 10010101 is
149

9.How many bits are in an IPv4 address?
32
256
128
64

10.An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::1. What is the target of this packet?
all IPv6 enabled nodes on the local link
all IPv6 configured routers across the network
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
all IPv6 DHCP servers

11.Fill in the blank.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hex number 0x3F?
63

12.Which network migration technique encapsulates IPv6 packets inside IPv4 packets to carry them over IPv4 network infrastructures?
tunneling
encapsulation
translation
dual-stack

13.What are two types of IPv6 unicast addresses? (Choose two.)
loopback
link-local
anycast
multicast
broadcast

14.What two statements describe characteristics of Layer 3 broadcasts? (Choose two.)
-Routers create broadcast domains
A limited broadcast packet has a destination IP address of 255.255.255.255
There is a broadcast domain on each switch interface.
A router will not forward any type of Layer 3 broadcast packet.
Broadcasts are a threat and users must avoid using protocols that implement them.
Some IPv6 protocols use broadcasts.

15.When will a router drop a traceroute packet?
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero
when the router receives an ICMP Time Exceeded message
when the host responds with an ICMP Echo Reply message
when the values of both the Echo Request and Echo Reply messages reach zero
when the RTT value reaches zero

16.

17.When a Cisco router is being moved from an IPv4 network to a complete IPv6 environment, which series of commands would correctly enable IPv6 forwarding and interface addressing?
Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.254 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# exit
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# no shutdown
Router(config-if)# exit
Router(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ipv6 address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

Router# configure terminal
Router(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
Router(config-if)# ip address 2001:db8:bced:1::9/64
Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.254 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)# no shutdown

18.Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
network portion
host portion
logical portion
physical portion
broadcast portion
subnet portion

19.Which IPv6 address is most compressed for the full FE80:0:0:0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3 address?​
FE80::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3
FE80::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​
FE80:::0:2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​
FE8::2AA:FF:FE9A:4CA3​

20.

Which message is displayed on the web server?
Correct configuration!
IPv6 address configured!
You did it right!
Successful configuration!

21.

22.A message is sent to all hosts on a remote network. Which type of message is it?
directed broadcast
limited broadcast
unicast
multicast

23.What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
/27
/26
/25
/28

CCNA 1 Chapter 7 v5.0 answers

1.What is the complete range of TCP and UDP well-known ports?

0 to 1023
0 to 255
256 – 1023
1024 – 49151

2.A host device sends a data packet to a web server via the HTTP protocol. What is used by the transport layer to pass the data stream to the proper application on the server?
destination port number
source port number
sequence number
acknowledgment

3.Fill in the blank using a number. A total of____ messages are exchanged during the TCP session termination process between the client and the server.
four

4.Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window
A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network.
A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site.
A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

5.Which factor determines TCP window size?
the amount of data the destination can process at one time
the number of services included in the TCP segment
the amount of data the source is capable of sending at one time
the amount of data to be transmitted

6.What happens if the first packet of a TFTP transfer is lost?
The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.
The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code.
The client will wait indefinitely for the reply.
The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

7.What is a beneficial feature of the UDP transport protocol?
fewer delays in transmission
the ability to retransmit lost data
acknowledgment of received data
tracking of data segments using sequence numbers

8.Compared to UDP, what factor causes additional network overhead for TCP communication?
network traffic that is caused by retransmissions
the identification of applications based on destination port numbers
the checksum error detection
the encapsulation into IP packets

9.What is a socket?
the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number
the combination of the source and destination sequence numbers and port numbers
the combination of the source and destination sequence and acknowledgment numbers
the combination of the source and destination IP address and source and destination Ethernet address

10.Which two TCP header fields are used to confirm receipt of data?
Sequence number
Acknowledgement number
checksum
FIN flag
SYN flag

11.During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?
the next byte that the destination expects to receive
the last sequence number that was sent by the source
one number more than the sequence number
the total number of bytes that have been received

12.During a TCP session, the SYN field is used by the client to request communication with the server

13.A host device needs to send a large video file across the network while providing data communication to other users. Which feature will allow different communication streams to occur at the same time, without having a single data stream using all available bandwidth?
multiplexing
window size
acknowledgments
port numbers

14.A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?
10 segments
100 segments
1000 segments
1 segment

15.A technician wishes to use TFTP to transfer a large file from a file server to a remote router. Which statement is correct about this scenario?
The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order at the destination, if necessary, by the upper-layer protocol..
The file is segmented and then reassembled in the correct order by TCP.
The file is not segmented, because UDP is the transport layer protocol that is used by TFTP.
Large files must be sent by FTP not TFTP.

16.What does a client do when it has UDP datagrams to send?
It just sends the datagrams
It queries the server to see if it is ready to receive data.
It sends a simplified three-way handshake to the server.
It sends to the server a segment with the SYN flag set to synchronize the conversation.

17.Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)
SYN
ACK
URG
PSH
RST
FIN

18.What does a client application select for a TCP or UDP source port number?
a random value in the range of the registered ports
a predefined value in the dynamic port range
a predefined value in the range of the registered ports
a predefined value in the well-known port range
a random value in the dynamic port range
a random value in the well-known port range

19.Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
TCP 3-way handshake
UDP sequence number
TCP port number
UDP ACK flag

20.

21.Match each application to its connectionless or connection-oriented protocol

22.

CCNA 1 Chapter 6 v5.0 answers

1.During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

switch the packet to the directly connected interface
look up the next-hop address for the packet
discard the traffic after consulting the route table
analyze the destination IP address

2.How do hosts ensure that their packets are directed to the correct network destination?
They have to keep their own local routing table that contains a route to the loopback interface, a local network route, and a remote default route.
They always direct their packets to the default gateway, which will be responsible for the packet delivery.
They send a query packet to the default gateway asking for the best route.
They search in their own local routing table for a route to the network destination address and pass this information to the default gateway.

3.When would the Cisco IOS image held in ROM be used to boot the router?
when the full IOS cannot be found
when the running configuration directs the router to do this
during a normal boot process
during a file transfer operation

4.

A packet leaving PC-1 has to traverse three hops to reach PC-4.​

5.

Does the router have enough RAM and flash memory to support the new IOS?
The router has enough RAM and flash memory for the IOS upgrade
The router needs more RAM and more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
The router has enough RAM, but needs more flash memory for the IOS upgrade.
The router has enough flash memory, but needs more RAM for the IOS upgrade.

6.A technician is configuring a router that is actively running on the network. Suddenly, power to the router is lost. If the technician has not saved the configuration, which two types of information will be lost? (Choose two.)
ARP cache & routing table
Cisco IOS image file
startup configuration
bootstrap file

7.Which three commands are used to set up a password for a person who attaches a cable to a new router so that an initial configuration can be performed? (Choose three.)
password cisco
line console 0
login

8.Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?​
Any host or user can get a public IPv6 network address because the number of available IPv6 addresses is extremely large.​
line vty 0 4
interface fastethernet 0/0
enable secret cisco

9.After troubleshooting a router, the network administrator wants to save the router configuration so that it will be used automatically the next time that the router reboots. What command should be issued?
copy running-config startup-config
copy startup-config flash
copy running-config flash
reload
copy startup-config running-config

10.What is a service provided by the Flow Label field of the IPv6 header?
It informs network devices to maintain the same path for real-time application packets
It identifies the total length of the IPv6 packet.
It limits the lifetime of a packet.
It classifies packets for traffic congestion control.

11.When connectionless protocols are implemented at the lower layers of the OSI model, what are usually used to acknowledge the data receipt and request the retransmission of missing data?
upper-layer connection-oriented protocolsTransport layer UDP protocols
connectionless acknowledgements
Network layer IP protocols

12.Fill in the blank. In a router,_____is the nonvolatile memory where the diagnostic software, the bootup instructions, and a limited IOS are stored.
ROM

13.Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
route print, netstat -r
tracert
show ip route
netstat -s

14.A technician is manually configuring a computer with the necessary IP parameters to communicate over the corporate network. The computer already has an IP address, a subnet mask, and a DNS server. What else has to be configured for Internet access?
the default gateway address
the MAC address
the domain name of the organization
the WINS server address

15.Which command displays a summary chart of all router interfaces, their IP addresses, and their current operational status?
show ip interface brief
show interfaces
show version
show ip route

16.Which two files, if found, are copied into RAM as a router with the default configuration register setting boots up? (Choose two.)
IOS image file
startup configuration
POST diagnostics
running configuration

17.Which two interfaces will allow access via the VTY lines to configure the router? (Choose two.)
LAN and WAN interfaces
console interfaces
USB interfaces
aux interfaces

18.Which IPv4 header field is responsible for defining the priority of the packet?
differentiated services
traffic class
flow label
flags

19.A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will the packet be sent?
The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.
The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it will be sent directly to the destination host.

20.Match the configuration mode with the command that is available in that mode

21.Which statement about router interfaces is true?
A configured and activated router interface must be connected to another device in order to operate.

22.Match field names to the header where they would be found

23.

CCNA 1 Chapter 5 v5.0 answers

1.Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
MAC addresses are implemented by software.
The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.
A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.

2.What is a characteristic of a contention-based access method?
It is a nondeterministic method.
It processes more overhead than the controlled access methods do.
It scales very well under heavy media use.
It has mechanisms to track the turns to access the media.

3.Which two statements describe features or functions of the logical link control sublayer in Ethernet standards? (Choose two.)
1.Logical link control is implemented in software.
2.The data link layer uses LLC to communicate with the upper layers of the protocol suite.
The LLC sublayer interacts directly with the NIC driver software.
The LLC sublayer is responsible for the placement and retrieval of frames on and off the media.
Logical link control is specified in the IEEE 802.3 standard.

4.What is the purpose of the preamble in an Ethernet frame?
is used for timing synchronization
is used to identify the destination address
is used to identify the source address
is used as a padding for data

5.What is the Layer 2 multicast MAC address that corresponds to the Layer 3 IPv4 multicast address 224.139.34.56?
01-00-5E-0B-22-38
FE-80-00-0B-22-38
FF-FF-FF-0B-22-38
00-00-00-0B-22-38
01-5E-00-0B-22-38

6.Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
1.Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
2.Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.
Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers.
A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times.
Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed.

7.What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
1.If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
2.If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

8.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?
PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address.
RT1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/0 MAC address.​
RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​
SW1 will send an ARP reply with its Fa0/1 MAC address.​
SW1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​

9.A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
It will send a request to the DNS server for the destination MAC address.
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the destination device.
It will send the frame and use its own MAC address as the destination.
It will send the frame with a broadcast MAC address.

10.What are two potential network problems that can result from ARP operation? (Choose two.)
1.On large networks with low bandwidth, multiple ARP broadcasts could cause data communication delays.
2.Network attackers could manipulate MAC address and IP address mappings in ARP messages with the intent of intercepting network traffic.
Multiple ARP replies result in the switch MAC address table containing entries that match the MAC addresses of hosts that are connected to the relevant switch port.
Manually configuring static ARP associations could facilitate ARP poisoning or MAC address spoofing.
Large numbers of ARP request broadcasts could cause the host MAC address table to overflow and prevent the host from communicating on the network.

11.A network administrator is connecting two modern switches using a straight-through cable. The switches are new and have never been configured. Which three statements are correct about the final result of the connection? (Choose three.)
1.The link between the switches will work at the fastest speed that is supported by both switches.
2.The link between switches will work as full-duplex.
3.The auto-MDIX feature will configure the interfaces eliminating the need for a crossover cable.
The connection will not be possible unless the administrator changes the cable to a crossover cable.
The duplex capability has to be manually configured because it cannot be negotiated.
If both switches support different speeds, they will each work at their own fastest speed.

12.A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100Base-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
shared memory buffering
level 1 cache buffering
fixed configuration buffering
port-based buffering

13.When would a switch record multiple entries for a single switch port in its MAC address table?
when another switch is connected to the switch port
when the switch is configured for Layer 3 switching
when a router is connected to the switch port
when multiple ARP broadcasts have been forwarded

14.

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?
The switch will forward the frame to all ports except port 4.
The switch will forward the frame to all ports.
The switch will forward the frame only to port 2.
The switch will discard the frame.
The switch will forward the frame only to ports 1 and 3.

15.Which two statements describe a fixed configuration Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
1.A fixed configuration switch may be stackable.
2.The number of ports on the switch cannot be increased.
An SVI cannot be configured on the switch.
The port density of the switch is determined by the Cisco IOS.
The switch cannot be configured with multiple VLANs.

16.How does adding an Ethernet line card affect the form factor of a switch?
By expanding the port density
by increasing the back plane switching speed
by expanding the NVRAM capacity
by making the switch stackable

17.A network administrator issues the following commands on a Layer 3 switch:
DLS1(config)# interface f0/3
DLS1(config-if)# no switchport
DLS1(config-if)# ip address 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0
DLS1(config-if)# no shutdown
DLS1(config-if)# end
What is the administrator configuring?

A routed port
a Cisco Express Forwarding instance
a trunk interface
a switched virtual interface

18.Which address or combination of addresses does a Layer 3 switch use to make forwarding decisions?
MAC and IP addresses
MAC address only
MAC and port addresses
port address only
IP address only

19.What statement illustrates a drawback of the CSMA/CD access method?
Collisions can decrease network performance.
Deterministic media access protocols slow network performance.
CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN technologies.
It is more complex than non-deterministic protocols.

20.Fill in the blank. The binary number 0000 1010 can be expressed as ______ in hexadecimal.
0A

21.Match the characteristic to the forwarding method
A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.

22.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instruction and then answer the question.
What destination address will PC1 include in the destination address field of the Ethernet frame that it sends to PC2?
0030.a3e5.0401
00e0.b0be.8014
192.168.0.34
192.168.0.17
0007.ec35.a5c6

23.

24.

Answers:
Beginning of frame- Field 1 = preamble
Field 2 =start frame delimiter
Field 3 =Destination mac address
Field 4 =Source mac address
Field 5 =Length/Type
Field 6 =Encapsulated Data
End of frame-Field 7 =Frame Check Sequence
_______________________________________________________________
 

OTHER version of questions:

1.Why is UDP well suited as the transport layer protocol for video applications?
UDP has low overhead.

2.Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window.

3.What is a function of the transport layer?
It segments data from the application layer into manageable pieces.

4.What happens if part of an FTP message is not delivered to the destination?
The part of the FTP message that was lost is re-sent.

5.What type of port number is assigned by IANA to commonly used services and applications?
well-known port

6.Which type of applications are best suited to use UDP as the transport layer protocol?
applications that require minimal transmission delay

7.What protocol header information is used at the transport layer to identify a target application?
port number

8.What is a socket?
the combination of a source IP address and port number or a destination IP address and port number

9.Which two flags in the Layer 4 PDU header are set by a client and server to terminate a TCP conversation? (Choose two.)
FIN
ACK

10.Which transport layer feature is used to guarantee session establishment?
TCP 3-way handshake

11.How does the transport layer provide end-to-end guaranteed data transmission?
TCP retransmits data whenever an ACK flag is not received.

12.Which two flags in the TCP header are used in a TCP three-way handshake to establish connectivity between two network devices? (Choose two.)
ACK
SYN

13.Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment was sent by PC1 to the web server via port 80. Because of an unexpected network failure, the data was forwarded by R1 but was not received by R2. Which statement is correct about this scenario?
The web server will not acknowledge this segment. The PC1 timer will expire and PC1 will resend the segment.​

14.A PC is downloading a large file from a server. The TCP window is 1000 bytes. The server is sending the file using 100-byte segments. How many segments will the server send before it requires an acknowledgment from the PC?
10 segments

15.A host begins a TCP session with a sequence number of 1000 and sends 10 segments of 1200 bytes each. The last acknowledgement the host receives has an ACK with a sequence number of 7001. What action will the host take next as part of the TCP session?
The host retransmits unacknowledged segments.

16.During a TCP session, a destination device sends an acknowledgment number to the source device. What does the acknowledgment number represent?
the next byte that the destination expects to receive

17.Refer to the exhibit. In the partial Wireshark capture of a packet, which Layer 4 protocol is being used to send data?
UDP

18.How does a client computer determine what source port number to assign to a UDP header?
The port number is random within the range of dynamic port numbers.

19.Fill in the blank.
The layer in the TCP/IP model that links the application layer to the internet layer is called the layer.
transport

CCNA 1 Chapter 4 v5.0 answers

1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

Data link
application
transport
physical
_______________________________________________________________

2.Which statement describes signaling at the physical layer?
Sending the signals asynchronously means that they are transmitted without a clock signal.
Signaling is a method of converting a stream of data into a predefined code.
Wireless encoding includes sending a series of clicks to delimit the frames.
In signaling, a 1 always represents voltage and a 0 always represents the absence of voltage.
_______________________________________________________________

3.What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)
to distinguish data bits from control bits
to reduce the number of collisions on the media
to increase the media throughput
to provide better media error correction
to identify where the frame starts and ends
_______________________________________________________________

4.The throughput of a FastEthernet network is 80 Mb/s. The traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgments, and encapsulation is 15 Mb/s for the same time period. What is the goodput for this network?
65 Mb/s
15 Mb/s
55 Mb/s
95 Mb/s
80 Mb/s
_______________________________________________________________

5.A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
EMI
RFI
extended length of cabling
crosstalk
signal attenuation
_______________________________________________________________

6.How is the magnetic field cancellation effect enhanced in UTP cables?
by increasing and varying the number of twists in each wire pair
by decreasing the number of wires that are used to carry data
by increasing the thickness of the PVC sheath that encases all the wires
by increasing the thickness of the copper wires
_______________________________________________________________

7.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.
The jack used is an RJ-11 connector instead of an RJ-45 connector.
The cable is not shielded.
_______________________________________________________________

8.

Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?
1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through
1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
_______________________________________________________________

9.Which statement is correct about multimode fiber?
SC-SC patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.
Multimode fiber commonly uses a laser as a light source.
Multimode fiber cables carry signals from multiple connected sending devices.
SC-ST patch cords are used with multimode fiber cables.
_______________________________________________________________

10.What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
_______________________________________________________________

11.Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
They allow for full-duplex connectivity.
They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
_______________________________________________________________

12.A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
Security
Interference
Coverage Area
mobility options
extensive cabling
packet collision
_______________________________________________________________

13.A network administrator is required to upgrade wireless access to end users in a building. To provide data rates up to 1.3 Gb/s and still be backward compatible with older devices, which wireless standard should be implemented?
802.11ac
802.11g
802.11b
802.11n
_______________________________________________________________

14.What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.
It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward a frame to a host on a remote network.
It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media.
_______________________________________________________________

15.As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame?
The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.
The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
_______________________________________________________________

16.What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?
Logical topologies determine the media access control method used.
Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
_______________________________________________________________

17.What are two characteristics of 802.11 wireless networks? (Choose two.)
They use CSMA/CA technology.
Collisions can exist in the networks.
They are collision-free networks.
They use CSMA/CD technology.
Stations can transmit at any time.
_______________________________________________________________

18.What is the purpose of the FCS field in a frame?
to determine if errors occurred in the transmission and reception
to obtain the MAC address of the sending node
to verify the logical address of the sending node
to compute the CRC header for the data field
_______________________________________________________________

19.Fill in the blank with a number. 10,000,000,000 b/s can also be written as _____ Gb/s.
10
_______________________________________________________________

20.Fill in the blank. The term _______ indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).
bandwidth
_______________________________________________________________

21.Fill in the blank. What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?
LLC (Logical Link Control)
_______________________________________________________________

22.The physical layer encodes the frames and creates the signals that represent the bits. These signals are then sent on the media one at a time. The destination node physical layer retrieves the individual signals from the media, restores them to their bit representations passes the bits up to the data link layer as a complete frame.
_______________________________________________________________

23
Match the steps to the physical layer operations that occur when data is sent from one node and received at another node.