CCNA 2 Chapter 9 v5.0 answers

CCNA 2 Chapter 9 v5.0 answers Routing and SWitching Essentials, RSE exam, CISCO CCNA quIZ TEST ANSWERS, CCNA 2 CH 9 2014

1.
What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)
ACLs assist the router in determining the best path to a destination.
Standard ACLs can restrict access to specific applications and ports.
ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
ACLs can permit or deny traffic based upon the MAC address originating on the router.
ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.

2.
What are two possible uses of access control lists in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)
limiting debug outputs
reducing the processing load on routers
allowing Layer 2 traffic to be filtered by a router
controlling virtual terminal access to routers
controlling the physical status of router interfaces

3.
Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)
Both kinds of ACLs can filter based on protocol type.
Both can permit or deny specific services by port number.
Both include an implicit deny as a final ACE.
Both filter packets for a specific destination host IP address.
Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.

Standard ACLs filter traffic based solely on a specified source IP address. Extended ACLs can filter by source or destination, protocol, or port. Both standard and extended ACLs contain an implicit deny as a final ACE. Standard and extended ACLs can be identified by either names or numbers.

4.
Which statement describes a characteristic of standard IPv4 ACLs?
They are configured in the interface configuration mode.
They filter traffic based on source IP addresses only.
They can be created with a number but not with a name.
They can be configured to filter traffic based on both source IP addresses and source ports.

A standard IPv4 ACL can filter traffic based on source IP addresses only. Unlike an extended ACL, it cannot filter traffic based on Layer 4 ports. However, both standard and extended ACLs can be identified with either a number or a name, and both are configured in global configuration mode.

5.
A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.255
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.0
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 255.255.255.255

To permit or deny one specific IP address, either the wildcard mask 0.0.0.0 (used after the IP address) or the wildcard mask keyword host (used before the IP address) can be used.

6.
Which IPv4 address range covers all IP addresses that match the ACL filter specified by 172.16.2.0 with wildcard mask 0.0.1.255?
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.2.255
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.3.254
172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255
172.16.2.1 to 172.16.255.255

The wildcard mask 0.0.1.255 means the first 23 bits are matched and the last 9 bits are ignored. That is, a matching IP address should be from 172.16.2.0 to 172.16.3.255 (where last 9 bits are from all 0s to all 1s and any value between).

7.
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
4
6
8
12
16

In calculating how many ACLs can be configured, use the rule of “three Ps”: one ACL per protocol, per direction, per interface. In this case, 2 interfaces x 2 protocols x 2 directions yields 8 possible ACLs.

8.
Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
Place standard ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Place extended ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.
For every inbound ACL placed on an interface, there should be a matching outbound ACL.

Extended ACLs should be placed as close as possible to the source IP address, so that traffic that needs to be filtered does not cross the network and use network resources. Because standard ACLs do not specify a destination address, they should be placed as close to the destination as possible. Placing a standard ACL close to the source may have the effect of filtering all traffic, and limiting services to other hosts. Filtering unwanted traffic before it enters low-bandwidth links preserves bandwidth and supports network functionality. Decisions on placing ACLs inbound or outbound are dependent on the requirements to be met.

9.

Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?
chapter9-3
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.
Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 15.
Create a second access list denying the host and apply it to the same interface.
Add a deny any any ACE to access-list 1.

Because the new deny ACE is a host address that falls within the existing 172.16.0.0 network that is permitted, the router rejects the command and displays an error message. For the new deny ACE to take effect, it must be manually configured by the administrator with a sequence number that is less than 10.

10.
An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out

Administrative access over SSH to the router is through the vty lines. Therefore, the ACL must be applied to those lines in the inbound direction. This is accomplished by entering line configuration mode and issuing the access-class command.

11.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)

12.
Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:

To modify an extended numbered ACL remove the ACL from the interface. Copy the ACL into a text document. Delete the ACL from the router. Modify the ACL within the text document and re-enter the ACL into the router and apply it to the interface.

13.
Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
In contrast to outbound ALCs, inbound ACLs can be used to filter packets with multiple criteria.
Inbound ACLs can be used in both routers and switches but outbound ACLs can be used only on routers.
Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.
On a network interface, more than one inbound ACL can be configured but only one outbound ACL can be configured.

With an inbound ACL, incoming packets are processed before they are routed. With an outbound ACL, packets are first routed to the outbound interface, then they are processed. Thus processing inbound is more efficient from the router perspective. The structure, filtering methods, and limitations (on an interface, only one inbound and one outbound ACL can be configured) are the same for both types of ACLs.

14.
Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?
the use of wildcard masks
an implicit deny any any ACE
the use of named ACL entries
an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets

One of the major differences between IPv6 and IPv4 ACLs are two implicit permit ACEs at the end of any IPv6 ACL. These two permit ACEs allow neighbor discovery operations to function on the router interface.

15.
Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.
A packet that has been denied by one ACE can be permitted by a subsequent ACE.
A packet that does not match the conditions of any ACE will be forwarded by default.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.
Each packet is compared to the conditions of every ACE in the ACL before a forwarding decision is made.

16.
Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)
deny ip any any
deny ipv6 any any
permit ipv6 any any
deny icmp any any
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit icmp any any nd-na

All IPv6 ACLs automatically include two implicit permit statements; permit icmp any any nd-ns and permit icmp any any nd-na. These statements allow the router interface to perform neighbor discovery operations. There is also an implicit deny ipv6 any any automatically included at the very end of any IPv6 ACL that blocks all IPv6 packets not otherwise permitted.

17.
What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?
named standard
named extended
numbered standard
numbered extended
Unlike IPv4, IPv6 has only one type of access list and that is the named extended access list.

18.
Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?
permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25
permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 25
permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 23
permit tcp host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 any eq 23

The IPv6 access list statement, permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25, will allow IPv6 packets from any host to the SMTP server at 2001:DB8:10:10::100. The source of the packet is listed first in the ACL, which in this case is any source, and the destination is listed second, in this case the IPv6 address of the SMTP server. The port number is last in the statement, port 25, which is the well-known port for SMTP.

19.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?
chapter9-1
HTTPS packets to PC1
ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1
packets that are destined to PC1 on port 80
neighbor advertisements that are received from the ISP router

The access list LIMITED_ACCESS will block ICMPv6 packets from the ISP. Both port 80, HTTP traffic, and port 443, HTTPS traffic, are explicitly permitted by the ACL. The neighbor advertisements from the ISP router are implicitly permitted by the implicit permit icmp any any nd-na statement at the end of all IPv6 ACLs.

20.
Question as presented:

Converting the wildcard mask 0.0.3.255 to binary and subtracting it from 255.255.255.255 yields a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0.
Using the host parameter in a wildcard mask requires that all bits match the given address.
192.168.15.65 is the first valid host address in a subnetwork beginning with the subnetwork address 192.168.15.64. The subnet mask contains 4 host bits, yielding subnets with 16 addresses.
192.168.15.144 is a valid subnetwork address in a similar subnetwork. Change the wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.240.
192.168.3.64 is a subnetwork address in a subnet with 8 addresses. Convert 0.0.0.7 to binary and subtract it from 255.255.255.255, and the resulting subnet mask is 255.255.255.248. That mask contains 3 host bits, and yields 8 addresses.

21.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Why is the ACL not working?
No ACL is needed for this scenario.
The ACL is applied in the wrong direction.
The ACL is missing a deny ip any any ACE.
The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.
The access-list 105 command or commands are incorrect.

CCNA 2 Chapter 8 v5.0 answers

CCNA 2 Chapter 8 v5.0 Exam Answers Routing and Switching Essentials – Single-Area OSPF – 2013/2014

CISCO CCNA Questions and Answers v5 Quiz TEST (Version 5.0) Chapter 8 Exam
This exam will cover material from Chapter 8 of the CCNA R&S Routing and Switching Essentials curriculum.

1
Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?
adjacency database
link-state database
routing table
SPF tree

Each OSPF router views the network differently as the root of a unique SPF tree. Each router builds adjacencies based on its own position in the topology. Each routing table in the area is developed individually through the application of the SPF algorithm. The link-state database for an area, however, must reflect the same information for all routers.
_______________________________________________________________

2
Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.)
It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.
Its contents are the result of running the SPF algorithm.
When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.
The topology table contains feasible successor routes.
The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.
After convergence, the table only contains the lowest cost route entries for all known networks.

The topology table on an OSPF router is a link-state database (LSDB) that lists information about all other routers in the network, and represents the network topology. All routers within an area have identical link-state databases, and the table can be viewed using the show ip ospf database command. The EIGRP topology table contains feasible successor routes. This concept is not used by OSPF. The SPF algorithm uses the LSDB to produce the unique routing table for each router which contains the lowest cost route entries for known networks.
_______________________________________________________________

3
What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
to send specifically requested link-state records
to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
to ensure database synchronization between routers
to request specific link-state records from neighbor routers
The OSPF hello packet serves three primary functions: discover OSPF neighbors and establish adjacencies, advertise parameters that OSPF neighbors must agree on, and elect the DR and BDR.
_______________________________________________________________

4
Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?
hello
DBD
LSR
LSU
LSAck

Link-state update (LSU) packets contain different types of link-state advertisements (LSAs). The LSUs are used to reply to link-state requests (LSRs) and to announce new information.
_______________________________________________________________

5
A router is participating in an OPSFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OPSF router?
OSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
SPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
A new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.

On Cisco routers the default dead interval is 4 times the hello interval, and this timer has expired in this case. SPF does not determine the state of neighbor routers; it determines which routes become routing table entries. A DR/DBR election will not always automatically run; this depends on the type of network and on whether or not the router no longer up was a DR or BDR.
_______________________________________________________________

6
What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)
to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full
to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router
to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote networks

OSPF router ID does not contribute to SPF algorithm calculations, nor does it facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full. Although the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when router adjacencies are being established, it has no bearing on the actual convergence process.
_______________________________________________________________

7
Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?
the IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
the IP address of the highest active interface on the router
the router-id rid command
the IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface

The preferred order of criteria for Cisco routers to identify the router ID is: an explicitly configured router using the router-id rid command; the IP address of any configured loopback interface; and the IP address of any active interface on the router (it does not have to be an OSPF-enabled interface).
_______________________________________________________________

8
Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?
0.0.0.32
0.0.0.31
255.255.255.224
255.255.255.223

The wildcard mask can be found by subtracting the subnet mask from 255.255.255.255.
_______________________________________________________________

9
Which command should be used to check the OSPF process ID, the router ID, networks the router is advertising, the neighbors the router is receiving updates from, and the default administrative distance?
show ip protocols
show ip ospf neighbor
show ip ospf
show ip ospf interface

The show ip ospf neighbor command is used to verify that the router has formed an adjacency with its neighboring routers. The show ip ospf command displays the OSPF process ID and router ID, the OSPF area information, as well as the last time the SPF algorithm was calculated. The show ip ospf interface command provides detailed information about every OSPF-enabled interface.
_______________________________________________________________

10
Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?
metric calculation
hello mechanism
OSPF packet types
authentication
election process

Both versions of OSPF use the same five basic packet types, the cost metric, and the DR/BDR election process. Hello packets are used in both versions to build adjacencies. OSPFv3, however, uses advanced encryption and authentication features that are provided by IPsec, while OSPFv2 uses either plain text or MD5 authentication.
_______________________________________________________________

11
Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.)
They both are link-state protocols.
They both use the exit interface address as the source address when sending OSPF messages.
They both share the concept of multiple areas.
They both support IPsec for authentication.
They both use the same DR/BDR election process.
They both have unicast routing enabled by default.

Only OSPFv2 messages are sourced from the IP address of the exit interface; OSPFv3 uses the link-local address of the exit interface. Only OSPFv3 uses IPsec; OSPFv2 uses plain text or MD5 authentication. Unicast routing is enabled by default only with OSPFv2.
_______________________________________________________________

12
What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?
the highest MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-48 process
the FE80::/10 prefix and the EUI-48 process
the MAC address of the serial interface, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process
an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process

Since serial interfaces do not have MAC addresses, OSPFv3 automatically assigns a link-local address to them derived from the first available MAC address from the pool of Ethernet interface addresses on the router. A FE80::/10 prefix is added. The router then applies the EUI-64 process to the MAC address by inserting FFFE into the middle of the existing 48-bit address and flipping the seventh bit.
_______________________________________________________________

13
A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64 in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?
The router will be assigned an autonomous system number of 64.
The router will be assigned a router ID of 64.
The reference bandwidth will be set to 64 Mb/s.
The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.

The basic command to implement OSPFv3 on a router uses the same process-id parameter as OSPFv2 to assign a locally-significant number to the OSPF process. OSPF does not use autonomous system numbers. Following the assignment of the process ID, a prompt will direct the user to manually assign a router ID. After the router ID is assigned, the reference bandwidth can be set.
_______________________________________________________________

14
When a network engineer is configuring OSPFv3 on a router, which command would the engineer issue immediately before configuring the router ID?
ipv6 ospf 10 area 0
ipv6 router ospf 10
interface serial 0/0/1
clear ipv6 ospf process

The OSPFv3 router ID is configured in the IPv6 router configuration mode. The clear ipv6 ospf process privileged EXEC command forces OSPF on the router to renegotiate neighbor adjacencies. The interface serial 0/0/1 command causes the router to enter interface configuration mode where OSPFv3 is enabled by issuing the ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id command.
_______________________________________________________________

15
Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?
ipv6 ospf 0 area 0
ipv6 ospf 20 area 20
ipv6 ospf 0 area 20
ipv6 ospf 20 area 0

The command to enable an OSPFv3 process on a router interface is ipv6 ospf process-id area area-id. In the case the process ID is 20 and the area ID is 0.
_______________________________________________________________

16
Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?
show running-configuration
show ipv6 ospf neighbor
show ipv6 route ospf
show ipv6 interface brief

The show ipv6 ospf neighbor command will verify neighbor adjacencies for OSPFv3 routers. The other options do not provide neighbor information.
_______________________________________________________________

17
Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?
show ip route ospf
show ip route
show ipv6 route
show ipv6 route ospf

The show ipv6 route ospf command gives specific information that is related to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table. The show ipv6 route command will show the entire routing table. The show ip route and show ip route ospf commands are used with OSPFv2.
_______________________________________________________________

18
Fill in the blank.
The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on multiaccess networks, such as Ethernet networks.
There is no need to have a DR/BDR election on a point-to-point link.
_______________________________________________________________

19
Fill in the blank.
OSPF uses cost as a metric.
The OSPF metric is cost. The lowest cost path to a remote destination is the preferred path and is installed in the routing table.
_______________________________________________________________

20
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
To quickly verify OSPFv3 configuration information including the OSPF process ID, the router ID, and the interfaces enabled for OSPFv3, you need to issue the command show ipv6 protocols.
_______________________________________________________________

21

Question as presented:
Match the information to the command that is used to obtain the information. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

Neighbor ID of 3.3.3.3 
– not scored – 
Routing Process “ospf 10″ with ID 1.1.1.1 
Routing Protocol is “ospf 10″ 
BW 1544 Kbit/sec

_______________________________________________________________

22

Question as presented:
By order of precedence, match the selection of router ID for an OSPF-enabled router to the possible router ID options. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

Third precedence 
Fourth precedence 
– not scored –
First precedence 
Second precedence

Cisco routers determine the OSPF router ID based on the preferential order of configured router ID, IPv4 addresses of loopback interfaces, and IPv4 addresses of active physical interfaces.
_______________________________________________________________

23

Question as presented:
Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:

This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found. 
This is the algorithm used by OSPF. 
All the routers are in the backbone area. 
– not scored – 
This is where you can find the topology table. 
– not scored –

DUAL is the algorithm used by EIGRP. In multiarea OSPF, OSPF is implemented using multiple areas, and all of them must be connected to the backbone area.
_______________________________________________________________

24

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task.
What message is displayed on http://www.ciscoville.com?

Finished!
Completion!
Success!
Converged!

The correct configuration on R1 is:
router ospf 10
network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

The correct configuration on R2 is:
router ospf 10
network 10.0.10.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

CCNA 2 Chapter 8 v5.0 answers Routing and SWitching Essentials, RSE exam, CISCO CCNA quIZ TEST ANSWERS, CCNA 2 CH 8 2014

CCNA 2 Chapter 7 v5.0 answers

1 Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)

allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology
is supported by RIP version 1
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
sends complete routing table update to all neighbors
reduces the amount of address space available in an organization

2

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?
R1, R4, R6, R7
R1, R3, R6, R7
R1, R3, R5, R6, R7
R1, R2, R5, R7
R1, R3, R5, R7

3

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)
RIP version 1 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.
RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.
The command no auto-summary has been used on the RIP neighbor router.
RIP will advertise two networks to its neighbor.
The metric to the network 172.16.0.0 is 120.

4
Which two statements describe the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose two.)
automatically summarizes networks at the classful boundaries
used primarily as an EGP
uses Dijkstra’s algorithm to build the SPF tree
has an administrative distance of 100
calculates its metric using bandwidth

5 What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?
allows a router to send routing updates on an interface but not receive updates via that innterface
allows interfaces to share IP addresses
allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface
allows an interface to remain up without receiving keepalives
allows a routing protocol to forward updates out an interface that is missing its IP address

6 In the context of routing protocols, what is a definition for time to convergence?
a measure of protocol configuration complexity
the capability to transport data, video, and voice over the same media
the amount of time for the routing tables to achieve a consistent state after a topology change
the amount of time a network administrator needs to configure a routing protocol in a small- to medium-sized network

7 Which two events will trigger the sending of a link-state packet by a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
the requirement to periodically flood link-state packets to all neighbors
a change in the topology
the initial startup of the routing protocol process
the router update timer expiring
a link to a neighbor router has become congested

8 Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate the answer.
The command version 2 is used in RIP router configuration mode to enable the sending of subnet masks with the routing updates.

9 What two actions result from entering the network 192.168.1.0 command in RIP configuration mode on a router? (Choose two.)
The routing table is created in the RAM of the router.
The RIP process is stopped and all existing RIP configurations are erased.
The neighboring routers are sent a request for routing updates.
Routing updates are sent through all the interfaces belonging to 192.168.1.0.
The network address 192.168.1.0 is advertised to the neighbor routers.

10 What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)
network discovery
discover hosts
propagate host default gateways
assign IP addressing
update and maintain routing tables

12

13

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?
Serial0/0/0
Serial0/0/1
GigabitEthernet0/0
GigabitEthernet0/1

14 Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?
S 10.0.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/0
S 10.16.0.0/16 is directly connected, Ethernet 0/1
S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
S 10.0.0.0/8 [1/0] via 192.168.0.2

15

16 Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate.
When configuring RIPng, the default-information originate command instructs the router to propagate a static default route.

17 What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?
IPv6 does not use static routes to populate the routing table as used in IPv4.
The selection of IPv6 routes is based on the shortest matching prefix, unlike IPv4 route selection which is based on the longest matching prefix.
IPv6 routing tables include local route entries which IPv4 routing tables do not.
By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.

18 Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)
The router has constructed an SPF tree.
The router has built its link-state database.
The router has established its adjacencies.
The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.
The routing table has been refreshed.

19 Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?
OSPF
EIGRP
RIP
BGP

20 Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)
contain subnets
contain a next-hop IP address
contain an exit interface
be a default route
be a classful network entry

21 A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?
a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
a network directly connected to a router interface
a route used as the default gateway
a static route

22 Which route will a router use to forward an IPv4 packet after examining its routing table for the best match with the destination address?
a level 1 ultimate route
a level 2 supernet route
a level 1 parent route
a level 1 child route

CCNA 2 RSE Chapter 6 Packet Tracer Assessment Practice Skills

CCNA 2 RSE Chapter 6 Packet Tracer Assessment Practice Skills

CCNA Routing and Switching Essentials

RSE Chapter 6 SIC Practice Skills Assessment – Packet Tracer

A few things to keep in mind while completing this activity:

1. Do not use the browser Back button or close or reload any exam windows during the exam.
2. Do not close Packet Tracer when you are done. It will close automatically.
3. Click the Submit Assessment button in the browser window to submit your work.

Objectives

• Design an IP addressing scheme to provide connectivity to end users in a small to medium-sized business network
• Configure static routes to enable connectivity in a small to medium-sized business network.
• Configure summary and floating static routes.

All IOS device configurations should be completed from a direct terminal connection to the device console.

Addressing Table

Device	Interface	IPv4 Address	Subnet Mask	Default Gateway
		IPv6 Address/Prefix
R1	S0/0/0	128.107.0.254	255.255.255.252	N/A
	S0/0/1	2001:DB8:2:1::0/127		N/A
	S0/1/0	2001:DB8:1:1::6/127		N/A
	S0/1/1	10.10.20.1	255.255.255.252	N/A
R2	G0/0			N/A
	G0/1			N/A
	S0/0/0	10.10.20.2	255.255.255.252	N/A
R3	G0/0	2001:DB8:1:A::1/64		N/A
	G0/1	2001:DB8:1:B::1/64		N/A
	S0/0/0	2001:DB8:1:1::7/127		N/A
PC1	NIC
PC2	NIC
PC3	NIC	2001:DB8:1:A::F/64		2001:DB8:1:A::1
PC4	NIC	2001:DB8:1:B::F/64		2001:DB8:1:B::1

Scenario

The network administrator has asked you to implement IPv4 and IPv6 static and default routing in the test environment shown in the topology. Configure each static and default route as directly attached.

Requirements

1. Use the address space 10.10.16.0/24 to design an addressing scheme.

• Split this address space into two equal-sized networks by subnetting it again.

Subnet 1: 10.10.16.0/25

Subnet 2: 10.10.16.128/25

• Assign the first of these new subnets to PC1 LAN.

subnet: 10.10.16.0 mask: 255.255.255.128

• Assign the second of these new subnets subnet to PC2 LAN.

subnet: 10.10.16.128 mask: 255.255.255.128

• For each subnet, assign the first usable IP address to R2 and the last usable IP address to the PCs.

interface G0/0
ip address 10.10.16.1 255.255.255.128
no shutdown

PC1: 10.10.16.126 255.255.255.128
Gateway: 10.10.16.1 255.255.255.128

interface G0/1
ip address 10.10.16.129 255.255.255.128
no shutdown

PC2: 10.10.16.254 255.255.255.128
Gateway: 10.10.16.129 255.255.255.128

2. Configure IPv4 summary and default routes.

• Configure an IPv4 default route on R2 using the next hop address.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.20.1

• Configure an IPv4 default route on R1 using Serial 0/0/0 as the exit interface.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0

• Configure an IPv4 summary route on R1 for the internal LANs. Use the exit interface.

ip route 10.10.16.0 255.255.255.0 s0/1/1

3. Configure IPv6 summary and default routes.

• Configure an IPv6 default route on R3 using the exit interface.

ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0

• Configure an IPv6 default route on R1 using Serial 0/0/1 as the exit interface.

ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/1

• Configure an IPv6 summary route on R1 for the internal LANs. Use the exit interface.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:a::/63 s0/1/0

4. Configure an IPv4 floating static route on R1 to the 64.100.100.0/24 network using the Serial 0/0/1 as the exit interface. Make the floating static route less trustworthy than the default route by one unit of AD.

ip route 64.100.100.0 255.255.255.0 s0/0/1 2

If your configuration has been completed correctly, all hosts should be able to contact the server that is attached to the Internet.

CCNA 2 Chapter 6 v5.0 answers

1.

Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)
ping
show ip route
show ip interface brief
tracert
show arp
show version

_______________________________________________________________
2.
A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:
IP phones – 50
PCs – 70
IP cameras – 10
wireless access points – 10
network printers – 10
network scanners – 2

Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?
172.16.0.0/23
172.16.0.0/24
172.16.0.0/22
172.16.0.0/25

_______________________________________________________________
3.

Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:1::/65 2001:db8:1:3::1
ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2
ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::1
ipv6 route ::/0 serial0/0/0

_______________________________________________________________
4.
What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one public IP address to translate multiple private addresses
utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize one dynamic routing protocol throughout the entire network
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system
utilize one subnet mask throughout a hierarchical network

_______________________________________________________________
5.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6

_______________________________________________________________
6.
Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?
directly connected static route
fully specified static route
default static route
recursive static route

_______________________________________________________________
7.
What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
default route
generic route
destination route
dynamic route

_______________________________________________________________
8.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.

What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1
ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:32:77::1
ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/0
ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 2001:db8:10:12::1

_______________________________________________________________
9.
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
to be used as a backup route
to be the priority route in the routing table
to act as a gateway of last resort
to load-balance the traffic

_______________________________________________________________
10.
What would be the best summary route for the following networks?
10.50.168.0/23
10.50.170.0/23
10.50.172.0/23
10.50.174.0/24
10.50.168.0/21

_______________________________________________________________
11.

Open the PT activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the name of the web server that is displayed in the webpage?
Webserver10
Main-Webserver
WWW-Server
MNSRV
_______________________________________________________________
12.

Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0
A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1
A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2
A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

_______________________________________________________________
13.
Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
All subnets in a network are the same size.
Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.
Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.
Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.
It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.

_______________________________________________________________
14.

Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?
R1 and R2 must use a dynamic routing protocol.
R1 needs a default route to R2.
R2 needs a static route to the Internet.
R2 needs a static route to the R1 LANs.
R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.

_______________________________________________________________
15.
The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

_______________________________________________________________
16.
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.
The router redirects the static route to compensate for the loss of the next hop device.
The route is removed from the table.
The route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

_______________________________________________________________
17.

Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?
R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/1 fe80::2
R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/0 fe80::2
R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2
R1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:32::/64 G0/0

_______________________________________________________________
18.
What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.
Static routing is relatively easy to configure for large networks.
Static routing requires very little knowledge of the network for correct implementation.
Static routing scales well with expanding networks.

_______________________________________________________________
19.

Refer to the exhibit. Which is the best way for PC A and PC B to successfully communicate with sites on the Internet?
Configure a default route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.
Configure a static route from R1 to ISP and a dynamic route from ISP to R1.
Configure a routing protocol between R1 and ISP and advertise all the routes.
Configure a dynamic route from R1 to ISP and a static route from ISP to R1.

_______________________________________________________________
20.

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252

ip route 198.133.219.24 255.255.255.252
ip route 64.100.210.80 255.255.255.252 10

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0

_______________________________________________________________
21.

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0
A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

_______________________________________________________________
22.
What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/63
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0000::/64
2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/63

CCNA 2 Chapter 5 v5.0 answers

1

Refer to the exhibit. The switch does the routing for the hosts that connect to VLAN 5. If the PC accesses a web server from the Internet, at what point will a VLAN number be added to the frame?
No VLAN number is added to the frame in this design.
point A
point B
point D
point C
point E
_______________________________________________________________
2.

Fill in the blank with an acronym.
While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a/an  is used as a virtual-routed VLAN interface.
SVI
_______________________________________________________________
3.
What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?
Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.
Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.
Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.
Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.
_______________________________________________________________
4.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?
5
3
1
4
2
_______________________________________________________________
5.
While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?
to create a switched virtual interface
to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic
to create a routed port for a single network
to provide a static trunk link
_______________________________________________________________
6.
Inter-VLAN communication is not occurring in a particular building of a school. Which two commands could the network administrator use to verify that inter-VLAN communication was working properly between a router and a Layer 2 switch when the router-on-a-stick design method is implemented? (Choose two.)
From the switch, issue the show vlans command.
From the router, issue the show interface interface command.
From the router, issue the show ip route command.
From the switch, issue the show interface trunk command.
From the switch, issue the show interface interface command.
From the router, issue the show interface trunk command.
_______________________________________________________________
7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured router CiscoVille with the above commands to provide inter-VLAN routing. What command will be required on a switch that is connected to the Gi0/0 interface on router CiscoVille to allow inter-VLAN routing?​
switchport mode trunk
switchport mode dynamic desirable
switchport mode access
no switchport
_______________________________________________________________
8.
How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?
Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.
_______________________________________________________________
9.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?
IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.
Each subinterface of Fa0/0 needs separate no shutdown commands.
Interface Fa0/0 is missing IP address configuration information.
Routers do not support 802.1Q encapsulation on subinterfaces.
_______________________________________________________________
10.

Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?
The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode.
Default gateways have not been configured for each VLAN.
A duplex issue exists between the switch and the router.
The wrong port on the router has been used.
_______________________________________________________________
11.

Refer to the exhibit. Which command can the administrator issue to change the VLAN10 status to up?​
Switch1(config)# vlan 10

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0​

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown​

Switch1(config)# interface vlan 10
Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown​
_______________________________________________________________
12.

Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet?
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.
The router will drop the packet.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2 and interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.1.
The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.3.
_______________________________________________________________
13.
Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?
router on a stick
legacy inter-VLAN routing
routing for the management VLAN
routing via a multilayer switch
_______________________________________________________________
14.

Refer to the exhibit. A router-on-a-stick configuration was implemented for VLANs 15, 30, and 45, according to the show running-config command output. PCs on VLAN 45 that are using the 172.16.45.0 /24 network are having trouble connecting to PCs on VLAN 30 in the 172.16.30.0 /24 network. Which error is most likely causing this problem?
There is an incorrect IP address configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30.
The command no shutdown is missing on GigabitEthernet 0/0.30
The GigabitEthernet 0/0 interface is missing an IP address.
The wrong VLAN has been configured on GigabitEthernet 0/0.45
_______________________________________________________________
15.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PCs on different VLANs cannot communicate. Based on the output, what are two configuration errors on switch interface Gi1/1? (Choose two.)
The trunking encapsulation protocol is configured wrong.
Negotiation of trunking is turned on on Gi1/1.
Gi1/1 is in the default VLAN.
Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode.
Voice VLAN is not assigned to Gi1/1.
_______________________________________________________________
16.

Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?
RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.
The no shutdown command should have been issued on Fa0/0.20 and Fa0/0.30.
There is no address on Fa0/0 to use as a default gateway.
Dot1q does not support subinterfaces.
_______________________________________________________________
17.
A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?
A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.
Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.
A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.
_______________________________________________________________
18.
What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?
does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
does not support VLAN-tagged packets
requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links
requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
_______________________________________________________________
19.
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
A network engineer is troubleshooting the configuration of new VLANs on a network. ​Which command is used to display the list of VLANs that exists on the switch?
show vlan
_______________________________________________________________
20.
What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?
All participating switches must have unique VLAN numbers.
Inter-VLAN portions of Layer 3 switching must use router-on-a-stick.
The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.
All routed subnets must be on the same VLAN.
_______________________________________________________________
21.
Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?
Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface.
All untagged traffic is dropped.
It is more expensive than using individual router interfaces.
Trunking cannot be used to connect the router to the switch.
_______________________________________________________________
22.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?
The command interface GigabitEthernet0/0.5 was entered incorrectly.
There is no IP address configured on the interface Gi0/0.
The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN.
The no shutdown command is not entered on subinterfaces.
Gi0/0 is not configured as a trunk port.
_______________________________________________________________
23.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server? 
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0

CCNA 2 Chapter 4 v5.0 answers

_______________________________________________________________

1.

Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?
Drop the packet.
Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface.
Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.
Send the packet out the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface.

_______________________________________________________________
2.
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
Layer 1 statuses
IP addresses
MAC addresses
next-hop addresses
interface descriptions
speed and duplex settings
_______________________________________________________________
3.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as
shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface,
the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional
command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the
interface up?
end
clockrate 128000
IPv6 enable
no shutdown
_______________________________________________________________
4.
When a computer is pinging another computer for the first time, what
type of message does it place on the network to determine the MAC
address of the other device?
an RFI (Request for Information) message
an ICMP ping
a multicast to any Layer 3 devices that are connected to the local network
an ARP request
_______________________________________________________________
5.
A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table
to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226
to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table
to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

_______________________________________________________________
6.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. Which two types of routes are displayed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

directly connected network
local host route
route that is learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
route that is learned through the OSPF routing protocol
static route
_______________________________________________________________
7.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ip route command on R2. What two types of routes are installed in the routing table? (Choose two.)

directly connected networks
routes that are learned through the EIGRP routing protocol
routes that are learned through the OSPF routing protocol
a configured default route
a configured static route to the network 209.165.200.224
_______________________________________________________________
8.
What type of IPv6 address is required as a minimum on IPv6 enabled interfaces?
static
global unicast
link-local
loopback
unique local
_______________________________________________________________
9.
What address changes as a packet travels across multiple Layer 3 Ethernet hops to its final destination?
source Layer 2 address
source IP
destination port
destination IP

_______________________________________________________________
10.
Fill in the blank.

When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the  table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.

routing
_______________________________________________________________
11.
A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote
network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet,
which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from
source to destination? (Choose two.)
destination MAC address
source ARP table
destination IP address
source IP address
source MAC address
Layer 2 header

_______________________________________________________________
12.
Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing
operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local
network? (Choose two.)
destination MAC address
network number
subnet mask
destination IP address
source MAC address

_______________________________________________________________
13.
A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?

The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.
No packets with a destination network of 172.16.1.0 have been sent to R1.
The subnet mask is incorrect for the IPv4 address.
The configuration needs to be saved first.

_______________________________________________________________
14.
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
It manages the VLAN database.
It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
It determines the best path to send packets.
It connects multiple IP networks.

_______________________________________________________________
15.
What is one feature that distinguishes routers from Layer 2 switches?

Routers support a variety of interface types. Switches typically support Ethernet interfaces.
Switches use tables of information to determine how to process data traffic. Routers do not.
Switches move packets from one physical interface to another. Routers do not.
Routers can be configured with IP addresses. Switches cannot.

_______________________________________________________________
16.
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
It has an administrative distance of 1.
It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

_______________________________________________________________
17.
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)

The metric is always determined based on hop count.
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.
The metric varies depending which Layer 3 protocol is being routed, such as IP.
A router first installs routes with higher administrative distances.
The value of the administrative distance can not be altered by the network administrator.

_______________________________________________________________
18.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)

Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::/64 will be forwarded through Fa0/1.
R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.
The interface Fa0/1 is configured with IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::12.
Packets that are destined for the network 2001:DB8:ACAD:2::54/128 will be forwarded through Fa0/0.
The network FF00::/8 is installed through a static route command.

_______________________________________________________________
19.

Place the options in the following order:
next hop 
destination network 
metric
– not scored –
administrative distance 
route timestamp 
route source protocol 
– not scored –

_______________________________________________________________
20.
A network administrator is implementing dynamic routing protocols for a
company. Which command can the administrator issue on a router to
display the supported routing protocols?

Router(config)# ip forward-protocol ?
Router(config)# service ?
Router(config)# ip route ?
Router(config)# router ?
_______________________________________________________________
21.
In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three
pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)

IP address
default gateway
subnet mask
hostname
DNS server address
DHCP server address

_______________________________________________________________
22.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the highlighted field in the line that is displayed from the show ip route command?

It indicates that this is a directly connected route.
It indicates that this route has been deleted from the routing table.
It indicates that this route was learned via EIGRP.
It indicates that this is a default route.

_______________________________________________________________
23.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 attempts to connect to File_server1 and sends
an ARP request to obtain a destination MAC address. Which MAC address
will PC1 receive in the ARP reply?

the MAC address of File_server1
the MAC address of S2
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R2
the MAC address of S1
the MAC address of the G0/0 interface on R1

_______________________________________________________________
24.
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 address on a router interface
so that the router will combine a manually specified network prefix
with an automatically generated interface identifier?

ipv6 enable
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length eui-64
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length link-local
ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 v5.0 answers

CCNA 2 Chapter 3 v5.0 answers Routing and SWitching Essentials, RSE exam, CISCO CCNA quIZ TEST ANSWERS, CCNA 2 CH 3 2014

1.
Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).
After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.
A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.
A data VLAN is used to carry VLAN management data and user-generated traffic.
Voice VLANs are used to support user phone and e-mail traffic on a network.
VLAN 1 is always used as the management VLAN.
_______________________________________________________________
2.
What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?
The port becomes inactive.
The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
The port creates the VLAN again.
The port goes back to the default VLAN.
_______________________________________________________________
3.

Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?
switchport trunk native vlan 66
switchport trunk allowed vlan add 99
switchport mode dynamic auto
switchport nonegotiate
_______________________________________________________________
4.
A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​ (Choose two.)
between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs
between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC
between two switches that share a common VLAN
between a switch and a client PC
between a switch and a network printer
_______________________________________________________________
5.
Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?
S1(config-if)#switchport nonegotiate
S1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
S1(config-if)# switchport trunk allowed vlan none
_______________________________________________________________
6.

Refer to the exhibit. PC-A and PC-B are both in VLAN 60. PC-A is unable to communicate with PC-B. What is the problem?
The VLAN that is used by PC-A is not in the list of allowed VLANs on the trunk.
The native VLAN is being pruned from the link.
The trunk has been configured with the switchport nonegotiate command.
The native VLAN should be VLAN 60.
_______________________________________________________________
7.
What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
Enter the no shutdown in interface configuration mode to return it to the default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
_______________________________________________________________
8.
Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.
Change the management VLAN to a distinct VLAN that is not accessible by regular users.
Statically configure all ports that connect to end-user host devices to be in trunk mode.
Use SSH for all remote management access.
_______________________________________________________________
9.
Fill in the blank. Use the full command syntax.
The  command displays the VLAN assignment for all ports as well as the existing VLANs on the switch.
show vlan brief
_______________________________________________________________
10.
Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?
show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport
show mac address-table interface Fa0/1
show interfaces trunk
show vlan brief
_______________________________________________________________
11.
Which command is used to remove only VLAN 20 from a switch?
no vlan 20
no switchport access vlan 20
delete flash:vlan.dat
delete vlan.dat
_______________________________________________________________
12.
Which two statements are true about VLAN implementation? (Choose two.)
Devices in one VLAN do not hear the broadcasts from devices in another VLAN.
VLANs logically group hosts, regardless of physical location.
The network load increases significantly because of added trunking information.
The size of the collision domain is reduced.
The number of required switches in a network decreases.
_______________________________________________________________
13.
Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)
on links that should not be trunking
when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch
on links that should dynamically attempt trunking
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic auto
when a neighbor switch uses a DTP mode of dynamic desirable
_______________________________________________________________
14.
A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?
It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
_______________________________________________________________
15.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?
PC-D, PC-E
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E
PC-A, PC-B
PC-A, PC-B, PC-D, PC-E, PC-F
PC-A, PC-B, PC-E
_______________________________________________________________
16.

Place the options in the following order:

– not scored –

dynamic auto

nonegotiate

dynamic desirable

trunk

_______________________________________________________________
17.
Which switch feature ensures that no unicast, multicast, or broadcast traffic is passed between ports that are configured with this feature?
PVLAN protected port
switch port security
ACL
VLAN
_______________________________________________________________
18.
What is the effect of issuing a switchport access vlan 20 command on the Fa0/18 port of a switch that does not have this VLAN in the VLAN database?
VLAN 20 will be created automatically.
The command will have no effect on the switch.
Port Fa0/18 will be shut down.
An error stating that VLAN 20 does not exist will be displayed and VLAN 20 is not created.
_______________________________________________________________
19.
Port Fa0/11 on a switch is assigned to VLAN 30. If the command no switchport access vlan 30 is entered on the Fa0/11 interface, what will happen?
Port Fa0/11 will be returned to VLAN 1.
VLAN 30 will be deleted.
An error message would be displayed.
Port Fa0/11 will be shutdown.
_______________________________________________________________
20.

Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.
Configure all unused ports to a ‘black-hole’ VLAN that is not used for anything on the network.
Disable autonegotiation and set ports to either static access or static trunk.
Change the native VLAN to a fixed VLAN that is distinct from all user VLANs and to a VLAN number that is not VLAN 1.
_______________________________________________________________
21.

Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?
No VLAN tag is added to the frame.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is accepted by the switch.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame is forwarded out the port to PC-B.
A VLAN tag is added when the frame leaves PC-A.
_______________________________________________________________
22.
In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?
the default automatic trunking configuration
automatic encapsulation negotiation
an open Telnet connection
forwarding of broadcasts
_______________________________________________________________
23.
A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?
Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.
Erase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
Erase the running configuration and reboot the switch.
Delete the IP address that is assigned to the management VLAN and reboot the switch.
_______________________________________________________________
24.
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.
Only the native VLAN will be allowed across the trunk.
The switches will negotiate via VTP which VLANs to allow across the trunk.
Only VLAN 1 will be allowed across the trunk.
_______________________________________________________________

25.
Which combination of DTP modes set on adjacent Cisco switches will cause the link to become an access link instead of a trunk link?

dynamic auto – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
dynamic desirable – trunk
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto

CCNA 2 Chapter 2 v5.0 answers

1. Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?

interface connected to the default gateway
Fa0/1
VLAN 99
Fa0/0
VLAN 1
_______________________________________________________________
2. Which three statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose three.)
Performance is improved because the collision detect function is disabled on the device.
Performance is improved because the NIC is able to detect collisions.
Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.
Nodes operate in full-duplex with unidirectional data flow.
Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.
Latency is reduced because the NIC processes frames faster.
_______________________________________________________________
3
What impact does the use of the mdix auto configuration command have on an Ethernet interface on a switch?
automatically detects interface speed
automatically assigns the first detected MAC address to an interface
automatically detects duplex settings
automatically detects copper cable type
_______________________________________________________________
4. Which type of cable does a network administrator need to connect a PC to a switch to recover it after the Cisco IOS software fails to load?
a coaxial cable
a crossover cable
a console cable
a straight-through cable
_______________________________________________________________
5
While troubleshooting a connectivity problem, a network administrator notices that a switch port status LED is alternating between green and amber. What could this LED indicate?
The port has an active link with normal traffic activity.
The port is administratively down.
The port is experiencing errors.
The port has no link.
A PC is using the wrong cable to connect to the port.
________________________________________________________________
6
A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
The boot process was interrupted.
There is not enough RAM or flash on this router.
A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
POST occurred normally.
The switch did not locate the Cisco IOS in flash, so it defaulted to ROM.
_________________________________________________________________
7
Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface??
show running-config
show controllers
show processes
show interfaces
________________________________________________________________
8.

Refer to the exhibit. What media issue might exist on the link connected to Fa0/1 based on the show interface command?

The interface might be configured as half-duplex.
There could be too much electrical interference and noise on the link.
There could be an issue with a faulty NIC.
The cable attaching the host to port Fa0/1 might be too long.
The bandwidth parameter on the interface might be too high.
_________________________________________________________________
9.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?

Use SSH version 1.
Reconfigure the RSA key.
Configure SSH on a different line.
Modify the transport input command.
____________________________________________________________________
10
Which protocol or service sends broadcasts containing the Cisco IOS software version of the sending device, and the packets of which can be captured by malicious hosts on the network?

DHCP
SSH
DNS
CDP
____________________________________________________________________
11
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access??

DHCP snooping
MAC address flooding
CAM table overflow
DHCP starvation
_________________________________________________________________
12
Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?

using ACLs to filter broadcast traffic on the switch?
increasing the speed of switch ports
increasing the size of the CAM table
configuring port security
_____________________________________
13
Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)

simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities
writing a security policy document for protecting networks
educating employees about social engineering attacks
revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic
controlling physical access to user devices
_______________________________________
14
Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
__________________________________________________________________
15.

Refer to the exhibit. Which S1 switch port interface or interfaces should be configured with the ip dhcp snooping trust command if best practices are implemented?
only the G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
only the G0/1 and G0/24 ports
only the G0/1, G0/2, G0/3, and G0/4 ports
only unused ports
only the G0/1 port
_____________________________________
16.

Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?
No one is allowed to disconnect the IP phone or the PC and connect some other wired device.
If a different device is connected, port Fa0/2 is shut down.
The switch should automatically detect the MAC address of the IP phone and the PC and add those addresses to the running configuration.

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security violation restrict

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky

SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
_______________________________________________________________
17.

Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?

The port has been shut down.
The port has the maximum number of MAC addresses that is supported by a Layer 2 switch port which is configured for port security.
The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.
The port has two attached devices.
_______________________________________________________________
18.

Refer to the exhibit. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?
The interface will go into error-disabled state.
Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.
A syslog message is logged.
A notification is sent.
_______________________________________________________________
19
The network administrator enters the following commands on a Cisco switch:

Switch(config)# interface vlan1
Switch(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0
Switch(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the effect of entering these commands?

All devices attached to this switch must be in the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet to communicate.
The address of the default gateway for this LAN is 192.168.1.2/24.
Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 subnet are able to ping the switch at IP address 192.168.1.2.
The switch is able to forward frames to remote networks.
________________________________________
20
Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)

The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.
Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
_______________________________________________________________
21
Fill in the blank.
Full-duplex communication allows both ends of a connection to transmit and receive data simultaneously.
_______________________________
22
Fill in the blank.
When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of shutdown until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.
________________________________
23

MATCHING

Step 1. Execute POST
Step 2. Load the boot loader from ROM
Step 3. CPU register initilizations
Step 4. flash file system initialization
Step 5. Load the IOS
Step 6. Transfer switch control to the IOS
_______________________________________
24.

Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Fill in the blank.
Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing command on S1?
ip address 192.168.99.2 255.255.255.0

25.
Fill in the blank.
When port security is enabled, a switch port uses the default violation mode of  until specifically configured to use a different violation mode.
shutdown
If no violation mode is specified when port security is enabled on a switch port, then the security violation mode defaults to shutdown.

CCNA 2 Chapter 1 v5.0 answers

CCNA 2 Chapter 1 v5.0 answers Routing and SWitching Essentials, RSE exam, CISCO CCNA quIZ TEST ANSWERS, CCNA 2 CH 1 2014

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC1 asks the DHCP server for IPv4 addressing. The DHCP server sends it an IPv4 address. While PC2 is still booting up, PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?​
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/4 only​
to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, Fa0/3, and Fa0/4
to Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 only
to Fa0/1 only​
————————————————————————-
What is a collapsed core in a network design?
a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers
a combination of the functionality of the access, distribution, and core layers
a combination of the functionality of the access and core layers
a combination of the functionality of the access and distribution layers
————————————————————————-
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
simpler deployment for additional switch equipment
easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability
reduced cost for equipment and user training
less required equipment to provide the same performance levels
lower bandwidth requirements
————————————————————————-
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?
aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries
aggregating all the campus blocks
acting as a backbone
providing access to the user
————————————————————————-
ABC, Inc. has about fifty hosts in one LAN. The administrator would like to increase the throughput of that LAN. Which device will increase the number of collision domains and thereby increase the throughput of the LAN?
switch
hub
host
NIC
————————————————————————-
What information is added to the switch table from incoming frames?
source MAC address and incoming port number
destination MAC address and incoming port number
destination IP address and incoming port number
source IP address and incoming port number
————————————————————————-
What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?
the number of available ports
the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port
the speed of each port
the memory space that is allocated to each switch port
————————————————————————-
What is one advantage of using the cut-through switching method instead of the store-and-forward switching method?
has a lower latency appropriate for high-performance computing applications​
has a positive impact on bandwidth by dropping most of the invalid frames
makes a fast forwarding decision based on the source MAC address of the frame
provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds
————————————————————————-
Which type of transmission does a switch use when the destination MAC address is not contained in the MAC address table?
broadcast
anycast
unicast
multicast
————————————————————————-
What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)
need for fewer power outlets
increased scalability
availability of multiple ports for bandwidth aggregation
lower forwarding rates
lower cost per switch
————————————————————————-
Which switch form factor should be used when large port density, fault tolerance, and low price are important factors?
stackable switch
fixed-configuration switch
modular switch
rackable 1U switch
————————————————————————-
What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?
determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address
forwards data based on logical addressing
learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address
duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port
————————————————————————-

Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.
SW1 forwards the frame directly to SW2. SW2 floods the frame to all ports connected to SW2, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch.
SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, excluding the interconnected port to switch SW2 and the port through which the frame entered the switch.
SW1 drops the frame because it does not know the destination MAC address.
————————————————————————-
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture access layer?
provides access to the user
aggregates Layer 3 routing boundaries
provides high availability
aggregates Layer 2 broadcast domains
————————————————————————-

————————————————————————-
What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to enhance user bandwidth
to isolate traffic between segments
to eliminate virtual circuits
to create more broadcast domains
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network
to create fewer collision domains
————————————————————————-
An administrator purchases new Cisco switches that have a feature called StackPower. What is the purpose of this feature?
It enables the sharing of power among multiple stackable switches.
It enables many switches to be connected with a special fiber-optic power cable to provide higher bandwidth.
It enables many switches to be connected to increase port density.
It enables many switches to be physically stacked in an equipment rack.
It enables AC power for a switch to be provided from a powered patch panel.
————————————————————————-

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are  collision domains in the topology.​
12
————————————————————————-
Fill in the blank.
A  network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.
converged
————————————————————————-

Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank.
There are  broadcast domains in the topology.​
5

21 What tool is important to consider for use when making hardware improvement decisions about switches?

switched virtual interfaces
authentication servers
multilayer switching
traffic flow analysis

22 What is the maximum wire speed of a single port on a 48-port gigabit switch?

1000 Mb/s
48 Mb/s
48 Gb/s
100 Mb/s

23 When the installation of a network infrastructure is being planned, which technology will allow power to be provided via Ethernet cabling to a downstream switch and its connected devices?

PoE pass-through
Gigabit Ethernet
wireless APs and VoIP phones
PoE

24 Match the function to the corresponding switch type. (Not all options are used.)

Layer 2 switches
[+] typically used in the access layer of a switched network
[+] forward traffic based on information in the Ethernet header

Multilayer switches
[#] can build a routing table
[#] supports a few routing protocols